The “DSM” in DSM-IV refers to th

It has been proposed that in the DMS-V, discussion on the concept of autism  a. will be removed from the text.

 b. will remain unchanged.

 c. will be replaced with a broader category referred to as “conduct disorders of autistic type” and will drop references to linguistic problems.

 d. be discussed as a single category of “autism spectrum disorders” rather than a list that includes numerous subcategories.

2.

The “DSM” in DSM-IV refers to the  a. Direct Services Method of Psychological Intervention

 b. Diagram of Severe Mental Illnesses

 c. Doctor’s Scientific/Psychological Medical Guide

 d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

3.

In the diathesis-stress model, the term diathesis refers to a(n)  a. social norm.

 b. genetic or personality-based predisposition toward vulnerability.

 c. anxiety-producing environmental event.

 d. state of calm.

4.

According to the diathesis-stress model, psychopathology results when  a. a stressful event triggers an already existing vulnerability or predisposition.

 b. the id develops.

 c. a gene that is programmed to activate at a certain point during the lifespan “turns on” without any trigger.

 d. a mentally healthy person takes a psychoactive drug.

5.

An imbalance in _____ appears to play a role in the acquisition of major depressive disorder.  a. corpus callosum activity

 b. dopamine levels

 c. serotonin levels

 d. beta-amyloids

6.

Echolalia is best described as  a. a lack of organized speech.

 b. parroting what someone else is saying.

 c. saying socially inappropriate things.

 d. not speaking at all.

7.

Under which DSM-IV category would you find autism spectrum disorders?  a. Personality disorders

 b. Adjustment disorders

 c. Pervasive developmental disorders

 d. Dissociative disorders

8.

On the DSM-IV, Asperger syndrome would be found under the label “_____ disorders.”  a. anxiety

 b. autism spectrum

 c. personality

 d. somatoform

9.

Winne has good verbal skills and is highly intelligent, but has social relationship skills typical of an autistic child. Given this description, Winnie is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ syndrome.  a. Down

 b. Kleinfelter

 c. Turner

 d. Asperger

10.

A now retracted article by Wakefield and others claimed that autism is caused by  a. the MMR vaccine.

 b. baby formula fortified with iron.

 c. excessive infantile exposure to television and computer screens.

 d. lead poisoning.

11.

What key evidence has emerged to disprove the myth that thimerosal (a mercury-based preservative) is responsible for autism?  a. The incidence of autism has decreased significantly, but only in females who are immune the impact of thimerosal.

 b. As the amount of thimerosal in baby food has increased, the incidence of autism has decreased.

 c. The incidence of autism has climbed after thimerosal was removed from the MMR vaccine.

 d. Historically, no children with autism ever came into direct contact with thimerosal.

12.

The most likely reason for the increase in the number of children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders is that  a. in the 1990s, Asperger syndrome was removed from the DSM-IV.

 b. in the 1990s, autism was removed from the U.S. list of disabilities eligible for special education services.

 c. there is now a broader definition for what used to be just autism.

 d. the rise has corresponded with the significant increase in the number of infants born with HIV.

13.

What behavior would an infant display that would lead a competent doctor to accurately suspect the child is autistic?  a. Excessive levels of joint attention

 b. Failure to respond to human voices

 c. An obsession with playing peek-a-boo and other social games

 d. Showing a clear preference for human over nonhuman stimuli

14.

Which statement concerning the intellectual abilities of autistic individuals is most accurate?  a. The vast majority of autistics are mildly to severely mentally retarded.

 b. Autistic individuals tend to score lower higher on nonverbal than verbal measures of intelligence.

 c. More than half of children with autism score above 71 on IQ tests.

 d. The description of some individuals with autism as “savants” with special abilities in a given area (e.g., quickly calculating the days of the week corresponding to dates on a calendar) is a myth.

15.

All of the following are currently legitimate suspected causes of autism except  a. lack of a theory of mind.

 b. genetic defect.

 c. a lack of executive functions.

 d. cold, rigid parenting.

16.

Concerning genetic explanations of autism,  a. there is clear evidence that autism is solely due to the presence of a third 21st chromosome.

 b. the genes involved appear to cause a rapid deceleration of head and brain development over the course of the first three years after birth.

 c. at this point there is no evidence of any genetic basis of the disorder.

 d. many genes have been implicated including some that appear to have been copied too many times.

17.

Which brain areas have been implicated as a possible cause of the behavioral problems found in individuals with autism?  a. The hypothalamus and temporal cortex

 b. The hippocampus and parietal cortex

 c. The amygdala and frontal cortex

 d. The thalamus and the occipital cortex

18.

Mirror neurons  a. generate multiple copies of themselves, and each copy leads to an increase in dopamine levels.

 b. are very fragile, and when they “die,” they produce excessive levels of neuritic plaque.

 c. only fire when they are stimulated by other mirror neurons.

 d. allow us to relate the feelings of others to our own experiences.

19.

Executive functions are thought to take place in the _____ cortex of the brain.  a. prefrontal

 b. parietal

 c. temporal

 d. occipital

20.

According to the executive dysfunction hypothesis, autistic behavior is the result of a brain that is  a. unable to plan and change one’s course of actions.

 b. overrun with mirror neurons.

 c. too small.

 d. lacking Broca’s area.

21.

Baron-Cohen has recently suggested that the extreme _____ hypothesis may explain the cause of Asperger syndrome.  a. executive dysfunction

 b. central coherence

 c. male brain

 d. theory-of-mind

22.

According to the extreme male brain theory of autism, the key problem with individuals with autism is that they  a. are too empathetic and try too hard to keep the world orderly.

 b. are too empathetic and do not attempt to keep the world orderly.

 c. lack empathy and try too hard to keep the world orderly.

 d. lack empathy and do not attempt to keep the world orderly.

23.

Recent research has shown that the nasal administration of _____ appears to improve social information and understanding in high-functioning individuals with autism.  a. oxytocin

 b. thimerosal

 c. beta-amyloid

 d. antihistamines

24.

Which statement concerning the long-term prognosis for autistic children is true?  a. Intensive behavior modification programs have been shown to increase levels of aggressiveness and self-stimulation.

 b. Most autistics achieve a normal level of functioning when they reach adulthood.

 c. Most can be improved significantly through drug treatment.

 d. The best interventions involve intensive and highly structured behavioral and educational programs aimed at young children.

25.

Ivar Lovaas conducted pioneering research on children with autism in which he was able to use _____ to significantly improve their language and social skills.  a. mirror therapy

 b. psychoactive medications

 c. psychoanalysis

 d. reinforcement principles

26.

The most accurate statement concerning the use of behavioral and cognitive interventions with children with autism is that they  a. typically lead to significant improvements in all children, regardless of their age or level of intellect.

 b. can lead to significant gains, especially in older children who do have significant intellectual disabilities.

 c. can lead to significant gains, especially in young children who do not have severe intellectual disabilities.

 d. are virtually worthless at changing behaviors.

27.

Which is the best example of a somatic symptom in a depressed infant?  a. Failure to develop an attachment to the primary caregiver

 b. The lack of language

 c. A disrupted sleep pattern

 d. The lack of interest in playing with a toy

28.

Failure to thrive in otherwise healthy infants is usually  a. so severe that it cannot be undone.

 b. attributed to perinatal complications.

 c. misdiagnosed as autism.

 d. the result of having unaffectionate or depressed caregivers.

29.

Depression is most rare in  a. middle adulthood.

 b. young adulthood.

 c. adolescence.

 d. childhood.

30.

By definition, all individuals who are classified with comorbidity  a. are extremely close to death.

 b. possess two psychological conditions at the same time.

 c. have been negatively impacted by both genetic and environmental factors.

 d. cannot control their impulses.

31.

Children who have a depressive disorder  a. differ from adolescents and adults with depression, because children never attempt suicide while the older age groups often do.

 b. often have problems with depression as adolescents and adults.

 c. are easy to identify because they frequently talk about their negative feelings.

 d. seldom respond well to any form of psychotherapy.

32.

Research has shown that _____ treatments tend to be the most effective when treating depression in children.  a. drug

 b. parental intervention

 c. cognitive behavioral

 d. psychoanalytic

33.

Many antidepressant drugs like Prozac are selective _____ reuptake inhibitors.  a. norepinephrine

 b. dopamine

 c. serotonin

 d. GABA

34.

In 2004, the United States government issued a warning concerning the use of some antidepressant drugs and the possible increased risk of ____ in adolescence.  a. birth defects

 b. suicide

 c. addiction

 d. pregnancy

35.

Which is true with regard to psychological “health” during adolescence?  a. Few adolescents who are psychologically disturbed were maladjusted before they reached puberty.

 b. Adolescents are far more likely than adults to experience some sort of psychological disturbance.

 c. Most adolescents suffer at some point from some sort of significant psychological disturbance.

 d. Adolescence is a time of heightened vulnerability for some forms of psychological disorders.

36.

Which statement concerning adolescence is true?  a. Few adolescents engage in delinquent or risky behavior during this period of life.

 b. Adolescents have little difficulty with self-regulatory behaviors.

 c. Most adolescents cope remarkably well with the challenges of this period of life.

 d. Most adolescents experience serious psychopathology during this period of life.

37.

Anorexia nervosa literally means “nervous loss of _____.”  a. appetite

 b. control

 c. mind

 d. weight

38.

Gwen has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Which of the following characteristics would she be least likely to possess?  a. The use of laxatives or self-vomiting to purge food

 b. A refusal to maintain body weight in spite of being in an emaciated state

 c. A feeling of being fat

 d. A tendency to consume huge quantities of foods in a single sitting

39.

According to statistics, who is most likely to commit suicide?  a. Jackson, a 25-year-old black male

 b. George, an 18-year-old black male

 c. Washington, an 80-year-old white male

 d. Andrew, a 45-year-old white male

40.

Which of the following is true with regard to adolescent suicide?  a. More males than females attempt and are successful at committing suicide.

 b. More females attempt suicide, but more males are successful at committing suicide.

 c. More females than males attempt and are successful at committing suicide.

 d. More males attempt suicide, but more females are successful at committing suicide.

41.

According to statistics, what characteristic puts a teenage at the greatest risk for committing suicide?  a. Lving in poverty

 b. Being a victim of physical abuse

 c. A homosexual orientation

 d. A history of behavioral problems

42.

Why is depression difficult to diagnose in older adults?  a. There are no diagnostic criteria for diagnosing depression in the elderly.

 b. As nearly all older depressed individuals commit suicide, there are few depressed individuals left to diagnose.

 c. Many of the diagnostic symptoms are similar to normal losses associated with aging.

 d. Normal cognitive loss associated with aging makes it hard for older people to answer questions about their mental state.

43.

Which statement concerning psychopathology in adulthood is true?  a. A major challenge in treating older individuals with depression is getting them to seek treatment.

 b. The elderly are highly likely to be overdiagnosed with depression.

 c. Treatments for depression in adulthood are highly ineffective.

 d. Depression symptoms in older adulthood are so different from young adulthood that different DSM criteria are used in its detection.

44.

Dementia is best defined as  a. an inevitable, normal change in the brain with age.

 b. a sudden loss of memory and intelligence.

 c. a one-time period of significant disorientation.

 d. a progressive loss of neural functioning.

45.

What is the most common form of dementia?  a. Down syndrome

 b. Parkinson’s disease

 c. Alzheimer’s disease

 d. Vascular dementia

46.

What brain change is best associated with Alzheimer’s disease?  a. Excessive quantities of the metal mercury

 b. Neurofibrillary bundles surrounding alpha-amyloid

 c. Senile plaque

 d. Excessive levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine

47.

Beta-amyloids are found  a. in large quantity in individuals with vascular dementia.

 b. to contribute significantly to the development of anorexia nervosa.

 c. only in clinically depressed individuals.

 d. at the core of senile plaques.

48.

Alzheimer’s disease is best described as  a. nonprogressive and incurable.

 b. progressive and incurable.

 c. progressive and curable.

 d. nonprogressive and curable.

49.

The first sign of Alzheimer’s disease is typically  a. trouble remembering recently learned verbal material.

 b. difficulty on recognition tasks.

 c. a loss of language skills.

 d. personality changes.

50.

A gene segment on the _____ chromosome has been implicated as a likely cause of late-onset Alzheimer’s disease.  a. 24th

 b. 19th

 c. 9th

 d. 14th

51.

How does the ApoE4 gene appear to contribute to the development of Alzheimer’s disease?  a. By making the brain more susceptible to damage from a blow to the head

 b. By decreasing blood flow to the prefrontal lobe

 c. Through the creation of new synapses within the brain

 d. Through an increased buildup of beta-amyloid

52.

The extra “brain power” that individuals can sometimes rely on when disease begins to take a toll on their brain functioning is referred to as  a. mirroring neurons.

 b. ruminative coping.

 c. cognitive reserve.

 d. reversed roles.

53.

Drugs like Aricept and Namenda that are currently used to treat Alzheimer’s disease tend to  a. positively impact cognitive functioning, reduce behavioral problems and slow the progression of the disease.

 b. positively impact behavioral problems but have little impact on cognitive functioning.

 c. positively impact cognitive functioning and reduce behavioral problems but do not slow the progression of the disease.

 d. have little measureable impact on behavioral or cognitive abilities.

54.

Current treatments being investigated for Alzheimer’s disease include  a. drugs to enhance the production of beta-amyloids.

 b. injections of Leva-dopa to replace levels of dopamine in the brain.

 c. antioxidants like vitamin E and C.

 d. use of stimulants like methylphenidate.

55.

What is the second most common type of dementia?  a. vascular dementia

 b. Parkinson’s disease

 c. Down syndrome

 d. Alzheimer’s disease

56.

It appears as if the same lifestyle factors that contribute to the development of _____ also increase the risk for vascular dementia.  a. Asperger syndrome

 b. cerebrovascualr disease

 c. ADHD

 d. respiratory failure

57.

Vascular dementia  a. is a slowly progressive deterioration of memory and thinking skills.

 b. results from a series of small strokes, each adding rather quickly to the observed deterioration.

 c. has a very powerful genetic basis.

 d. results from taking medications or having a poor diet and can be reversed when these problems are corrected.

58.

A key difference between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia is that vascular dementia is more strongly  a. associated with delirium.

 b. influenced by lifestyle choices.

 c. influenced by genetic factors.

 d. associated with dementia.

59.

Delirium is best defined as  a. a normal part of the aging process.

 b. incurable.

 c. another term for dementia.

 d. a reversible state of confusion and disorientation.

60.

Due to their mental slowness, elderly adults who are _____ are frequently misdiagnosed with delirium.  a. depressed

 b. autistic

 c. ADHD

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