b. Video conference
c. Shift work
2. People are their most cooperative when interacting via this form of communication:
same time, different place.
different time, same place.
different place, different time.
3. Which of the following communication situations has the highest message “richness”, or potential information-carrying capacity?
a. Memo announcing new workplace policy
b. Spreadsheet of financial statistics
c. Video conference interview
d. Face-to-face meeting with clients
4. Virtual distance is a term that refers to the:
a. feelings of separation engendered by communication via e-mail, text, audio conferencing, and so on.
b. delay that people experience when sending electronic messages through several gateways and spam filters.
c. fact that people behave differently on e-mail than they do face-to-face.
d. tendency to engage in flaming and teasing behavior on the Internet.
5. Although there are disadvantages to physically dispersed teams, what advantage can physical distance provide for teams?
a. Informal modeling
b. Awareness of new technology
c. Increased conflict
d. Team members feel compelled to prepare for meetings and to address issues more efficiently.
6. Some types of teams become information-dependent upon aspects of their physical environment in order to do their work. This type of team situation is best termed as:
a. place-time model of social interaction.
b. codified knowledge.
c. location dependent.
d. different time, same place.
7. Regarding out-of-the-loop employees, which of the following is one of Edmondson’s “Four Tactics for Reframing” that helps people reframe their purpose on a team?
a. Tell yourself that the project is similar to other projects you’ve already done, and bring your knowledge to the service of others on the team with less project experience.
b. See yourself as vitally important to a successful outcome, and to achieve the goal, you need the willing participation of others on your team.
c. See others as less important than yourself to the successful outcome of the projects, and work to provide the critical pieces of the solution to make up for the shortcomings of others.
d. Be selective about the information you share with others on the team.
8. Information technology has powerful effects on social behavior. Which of the following issues should NOT be expected when interacting with teammates via information technology?
a. Reduced/changed status differences between team members.
b. Increased inhibitions and a decreased likelihood that all members will contribute to the discussion.
c. Increased time to make decisions.
d. Lower frequency of communication.
9. Information technology changes social behavior. Which of the following behaviors is TRUE about information technology as compared to traditional face-to-face interaction?
a. Participation in team and group settings becomes more uneven and polarized.
b. Status differences among people and groups are magnified and more salient.
c. Computer-mediated groups make decisions faster and reach consensus earlier.
d. There is a lower frequency of communication in computer-mediated groups.
10. With regard to risk-taking, compared to groups that make decisions face-to-face, groups that make decisions via electronic communication are:
a. risk-averse for gains and risk-seeking for losses.
b. prone to feel more responsible for project failures.
c. risk-seeking for gains, and for losses.
d. risk-averse for both gains and losses.
11. Virtual teams are best described as a:
a. group support system or electronic meeting system.
b. combination of technology, tools, and infrastructures that allows scientists to work with one another on projects related to the future of technology.
c. task-focused group that meets without all members necessarily being physically present or even working at the same time.
d. community composed of people who work for e-businesses.
12. Virtual teams need to consider several factors for their ultimate success. First, the level of technical support they will need, second their locations relative to one another, and third the:
a. best use of available computer equipment.
b. emotional cohesion of team.
c. public speaking ability of each team member.
d. percentage of time they spend in face-to-face meetings.
13. Two types of information knowledge exist in teams. The first, ________ knowledge, is hard to articulate and acquired through experience. The second, ________ knowledge, is knowledge that is transmittable in formal or symbolic language.
a. codified; tacit
b. rich; codified
c. tacit; codified
d. tacit; rich
14. Tools, documents, language and processes—these are examples of boundary objects. Which of the following is the best definition of the purpose of boundary objects?
a. To mark out the limitations of liability for teams
b. To establish team project ownership and territories
c. The documents, objects, and shared vocabulary that allow people from different teams, organizations, and cultures to build a shared understanding across teams.
d. A culture’s signature pattern of workplace beliefs, mental models, and practices that embody the culture’s ideas about what is good, true, and efficient within the domain of work.
15. Unless people have had special training, they are likely to commit blunders when communicating virtually. All of the following are best practices of virtual communication etiquette EXCEPT:
a. active listening.
b. establish one person as the speaker for the group and have all other group members funnel their questions and comments through that team member.
c. immediately establish the purpose of the team.
d. summarize often and confirm understanding.
16. All of the following are reasons why the spontaneous social interaction called “schmoozing” is advantageous for virtual teams EXCEPT:
a. expedites the operation of virtual teams.
b. increases like and rapport.
c. increases task focus.
d. low cost and efficiency.
17. One of the challenges of virtual teams is building reliability capital. Which of the following tactics is a best practice when building reliability capital in virtual teams?
a. To build cohesion and to encourage friendly team exchanges, consider using sarcasm, joking and teasing in your distance interactions.
b. Follow up with team members as time and schedule allows.
c. Always be brutally honest about your opinions to avoid possible groupthink.
d. Be available to support and respond to team members. When you are not available, follow up as soon as possible.
18. Cultural intelligence is best described as:
a. the capability to adapt effectively to new cultural contexts.
b. reliability capital.
19. People from different cultures can differ in many ways. The cultural value of egalitarianism refers to __________; the cultural value of hierarchy refers to __________.
a. the pursuit of personal welfare and self-interest; the maximization of the welfare of the group
b. the belief that status differences are permeable; the belief that social order is not easily permeated
c. the use of explicit, direct information exchange; the use of indirect, tacit messages
d. cognitive cultural intelligence; emotional and motivational cultural intelligence
20. In regard to cultural values, in __________ cultures, members of high- and low-status groups communicate frequently, and do not go to great lengths to perpetuate differences. In __________ cultures and organizations, status differences are not easily permeated.
a. individualized; collective
b. direct; indirect
c. egalitarian; hierarchical
d. schmoozing; exclusive
21. The extent to which a person identifies with a group occurs on three distinct identity levels. Individuals who are high in __________ identity are likely to agree with the following statements: “all members need to contribute to achieve the group’s goals” and “this group accomplishes things that no single member could achieve.”
22. This self-concept is achieved by assimilating with significant others, and is based on personalized bonds of attachment. This is best termed as:
a. individual self.
b. relational self.
c. collective self.
d. cognitive identity.
23. The __________ self is realized by differentiating ourselves from others; __________ self is achieved by assimilating with significant others; __________ self is achieved by inclusion in large, social groups.
a. relational; individual; collective
b. individual; relational; collective
c. me-centered; we-centered; mixed-motive
d. independent; interdependent; codependent
24. Exhibit 12-2 illustrates the progressively more inclusive ways a person can identify himself or herself within an organizational structure. At a basic level, a person might see himself or herself as an individual, but at a wider view, a person might see himself or herself as a member of a unit or a larger organizational area. Group members identify and categorize themselves in this same fashion; categorizing themselves and others in terms of in-groups and out-groups. The more narrowly a group defines itself, the more the group’s behavior becomes:
a. cohesive and differentiated.
b. inclusive and extraverted.
c. competitive and self-serving.
d. cooperative and self-sacrificing.
25. Optimal Distinctiveness Theory argues that people:
a. want to strive to be the most valued team member.
b. prefer to be accepted by others more than being correct, accurate, or right.
c. want to neither be too different, nor too similar to others.
d. want to be the leader of their team.
26. One implication of the optimal distinctiveness model is that to secure loyalty, teams must not only satisfy members’ needs for affiliation and belonging within a group, but must also:
a. maintain high levels of cohesion.
b. establish a good record of performance.
c. contribute to the greater good of the team.
d. maintain clear boundaries that differentiate them from other groups.
27. People who don’t feel respected by their team are __________. Conversely, respected members of organizational groups that have low status and prestige are the most likely to __________.
a. high in social comparison; be self-serving and competitive
b. not as loyal or committed to their team; donate their time to their team to improve its image
c. high in realistic conflict; be high in symbolic conflict
d. high in ethnocentrism; stereotype
28. Social comparison theory predicts when:
a. a comparable team in your organization performs similarly or better than your team, and the identity of your team is threatened.
b. teams will harm or discriminate against other teams when the performance of the other team decreases.
c. teams will harm or discriminate against members of their own team when the performance of their own team decreases.
d. a member outside of the team performs similarly or better than your team, and the team will feel interdependent with that person.
29. The team discontinuity effect is the fact that:
a. teams who perform particularly well are more likely to act in a competitive fashion with other teams.
b. if the task holds constant, people in teams behave more competitively toward one another as compared to individuals.
c. people in teams lose their self-identity the longer they have been a member of the team.
d. teams often begin by cooperating with others, but eventually start competing with others.
30. The leadership paradox is best stated as the fact that:
a. teams usually need leaders, but the very presence of a leader threatens the autonomy of a team.
b. leaders often know what to do, but are reluctant to share that knowledge with their team.
c. leaders must pay attention to cognition (rationality) and emotion (intuition) when making decisions.
d. leaders often change their mind immediately after having made a decision.
31. The theory that argues that leadership is largely an inborn characteristic of a person, and is largely inflexible and not easily developed, learned, or acquired is best termed:
a. incremental theory.
b. leadership paradox.
c. entity theory.
d. leader categorization theory.
32. The trait theory of leadership argues that leadership is largely an inborn characteristic of a person. Which of the following traits is attributed to people who are one of these types of theoretical leaders?
a. Their leadership style encourages team freedom and autonomy.
b. Their command is viewed as decentralized.
c. They have great humility and nobility.
d. They take and are given too little blame for corporate failures.
33. The research on personality and leadership has found evidence for all of the following EXCEPT:
a. intelligence, and in particular, GMA (General Mental Ability) is linked to career success.
b. narcissistic people are more likely to emerge as leaders in a group, but they are no more skilled than others.
c. there is some indication from cross-sectional data that first-born children may be more intelligent.
d. male leaders engage in more task-oriented behavior; female leaders engage in more relational-oriented behaviors.
34. There is overwhelming evidence that environmental and situational factors strongly affect leadership. Of the following, which is the best example of one of those situational factors?
a. Positive personality
b. Pragmatism about solutions
c. Seating arrangements
d. Diversity of network contacts
35. In terms of leadership selection, an investigation of team performance showed that teams with __________ leaders performed better on all organizational decision-making tasks than did teams whose leaders were __________.
a. quickly selected; slowly selected
b. passive; aggressive
c. randomly selected; systematically selected
d. team-selected; top-management selected
36. Which of the following behaviors is typical from leaders of a transactional leadership style?
a. Develop employees that are adaptive and proactive in response to change.
b. Have more satisfied subordinates.
c. Reward compliant behavior and punish employees if they fail to complete tasks.
d. Create teams that are characterized by collective openness to experience, agreeableness, extraversion, and greater conscientiousness.
37. Teams that are underbounded have __________; in contrast, teams that are overbounded have __________.
a. leaders that are present; leaders that are absent
b. leaders that are absent; leaders that are present
c. many external ties, but cannot bring its members together; high loyalty but an inability to integrate with others
d. high internal loyalty, but cannot integrate with others outside the team; many external ties, but cannot bring its members together
38. Whether a deliberate choice by a leader, or ostracized by the organization, __________ are sequestered from the rest of the company, often for security or intellectual reasons.
a. surveying teams (example–a company that takes customer votes on which products to be offered at retail)
b. broadcasting teams (example–an internal affairs department)
c. x-teams – (example–two market competitors teaming up to achieve a shared goal)
d. insulating teams – (example–the scientific team that developed the atomic bomb)
39. What is a common operational characteristic of marketing teams?
a. They concentrate on their internal processes, and simply inform others of what they are doing.
b. They have little outside contact, and make decisions about how to serve its customers from within.
c. They are tasked with letting others outside the team know what they are doing after they have made decisions.
d. They actively tailor their communications to suit the needs, interests, and objectives of the organization.
40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizational founding teams?
a. They influence organizational development.
b. They create new organizational communities and populations.
c. They are sequestered from the general organizational environment.
d. When they disband, they can create a large amount of employment volatility.
41. __________ are highly externally oriented; their members forge dense networks across the organization, enable rapid execution of ideas, and may sometimes find they have to cross competitive, organizational borders to achieve a shared goal.
a. Broadcasting teams
b. Marketing teams
d. Surveying teams
42. X-teams are highly externally oriented. The typical cycle of an x-team involves which order of these processes?
a. Exploration, exploitation, exportation
b. Exportation, exploration, exploitation
c. Exploitation, exploration, exportation
d. Exploration, exportation, exploitation
43. In regard to common roles in workgroups, the person who provides meanings about what the team is doing, how successful it is to people outside of the team, and the interpretation of what the team is perceived to be doing is best termed a(n):
44. According to Finke’s Four Factors model of creativity, ideas that work with existing products and services are high in __________.
a. creative realism
c. structural connectedness
45. Finke’s model of creativity specifies two dimensions by which creative ideas may be evaluated (one dimension being conservatism–creativity, and another dimension being realistic–idealistic). According to Finke, the most desirable ideas fall into which quadrant?
a. Conservative realism
b. Conservative idealism
c. Creative realism
d. Creative idealism
46. One quadrant in Finke’s Four Factor model of creativity is __________, and represents ideas that are highly traditional and highly connected to current knowledge and practices.
a. creative idealism
b. creative realism
c. conservative realism
d. conservative idealism
47. Guilford’s model of creativity focuses on fluency, flexibility, and originality. Fluency refers to __________; flexibility refers to __________; originality refers to __________.
a. the number of ideas; how many different types of ideas; the uniqueness of ideas
b. how many different types of ideas; the number of ideas; the uniqueness of ideas
c. language; accommodation; uniqueness
d. language; conflict management; uniqueness
48. In regard to the three indices that measure the creativity of an idea, which is the most important according to Guilford?
49. What type of conflict stimulates divergent thinking in teams?
50. According to the empirical research on convergent and divergent thinking, which statement is true:
a. groups are better than individuals at convergent and divergent thinking.
b. individuals are better than groups at convergent and divergent thinking.
c. groups are better than individuals at convergent thinking; individuals are better at divergent thinking.
d. groups are better than individuals at divergent thinking; individuals are better at convergent thinking.
51. Janusian thinking refers to the ability to cope with, and even welcome, conflicting ideas, paradoxes, ambiguity, and doubt. Which of the following techniques is a way to stimulate this type of thinking?
a. Quickly judging ideas upon their creation.
b. Asking questions with definitive answers.
c. Asking open-ended questions.
d. Thinking of ideas that are possible to execute.
52. Companies that engage in more exploration rather than exploitation may:
a. suffer the costs of experimentation without gaining any of its benefits.
b. exhibit fewer underdeveloped ideas.
c. gain distinctive marketplace competencies.
d. lead to strengthening their skills in idea editing and refinement.
53. Leaders who provide their teams with a great deal of __________ and __________ provide an environment that fosters creativity.
a. dependence; cohesion
b. detachment; Janusian thinking
c. rationality; logic
d. autonomy; freedom
54. Relationship conflict is best described as conflict about:
a. tasks and the work to be done.
b. procedures, processes, and how the work should be done.
c. personalities, often involving anger and ego clashes.
d. ideology, philosophy, and fundamental belief systems.
55. Task conflict is best described as:
a. tasks and the work to be done.
b. procedures, processes, and how the work should be done.
c. personalities, often involving anger and ego clashes.
d. ideology, philosophy, and fundamental belief systems.
56. Team members high in motivation to acquire relationship-threatening information, or “MARTI”:
a. make more sinister attributions about their coworkers behaviors and intentions.
b. are more likely to include prospective group members in joining their group.
c. plan to accept newcomers to their group.
d. have lower levels of relationship conflict.
57. __________ centers on disagreements that team members have about how to approach a task and who should do what.
a. Proportional conflict
b. Task conflict
c. Perceptual conflict
d. Process conflict
58. Greater amounts of relationship conflict in a team are associated with lower levels of __________, and negatively associated with __________.
a. social loafing; team power
b. performance; team effectiveness
c. education; cognitive functioning
d. compliance; financial stability
59. Tom and Tim are in a five-person team. Tim perceives that the team’s recent arguments pertain to team tasks. Tom does not detect such overtones of conflict in task discussions. The fact that they don’t see conflict in the same way is an example of __________ conflict.
60. A team that has a large representational gap has:
a. success in enticing other team members to adopt their position.
b. a majority of members who privately agree with the minority.
c. disagreements about how to approach a task and who should do what.
d. inconsistent views and mental models about the definitions of the team’s problem or task.
61. Of the two ways which majorities and minorities influence their teams, which of the following is the best example of indirect influence?
a. Sarah convinces Holly and Sue to adopt her position on their team project.
b. Holly changes her behavior due to Sarah’s influence.
c. Even though Sarah has convinced two members of the team to agree with her views, seven of the ten team members privately agree with Bob’s minority viewpoint.
d. Sarah talks to Carl to try and convince him to understand and agree with her viewpoints on the project. Carl doesn’t agree right away, but after thinking about it for a week, he decides that Sarah’s view is best.
62. When people change their attitudes as a result of direct influence or pressure, this is referred to as:
a. the sleeper effect.
b. team power.
63. __________ is the term used to describe a person’s change in attitude and behavior as a result of their own thinking about a subject, and is more stable than an attitude change induced by peer pressure.
a. Direct influence
b. Interest-based approach
64. The framing bias makes specific predictions about how people will behave when faced with a sure course of action versus a gamble. Which of the following best describes the effects of the framing bias?
a. People are risk-averse (i.e., preferring a sure thing) for both gains and losses.
b. People are risk-seeking (i.e., preferring a gamble) when choosing among gains and losses.
c. People tend to be risk-averse when choosing among gains, but risk-seeking when choosing among losses.
d. People tend to be risk-seeking when choosing among gains, but risk-averse when choosing among losses.
65. An example of the overconfidence bias is:
a. Bill’s tendency to consider evidence that supports his position on illegal immigration, but disregards evidence that refutes his beliefs.
b. Carol and her team have been working on a new product for several years and one expensive prototype has become their main focus. When evaluating the choices for launch, the group judges the top prototype as the best one for launch over less expensive options.
c. Joe makes a stock price prediction and believes that there is only a 5% chance that his estimate is wrong; overlooking recent articles about the bad financial health of the business.
d. a judge in a criminal court hears over 80 cases a day. The defendants whose cases are heard late in the day were given harsher sentences.
66. The confirmation bias is best described as the tendency for people to:
a. seek and consider evidence that supports their preferred hypothesis, and discount or ignore information that refutes their beliefs.
b. want others to agree with them because of their need to be liked.
c. not want to act as a devil’s advocate in a group, even though it would help the group.
d. put unwarranted confidence in their decisions.
67. Which of the following is NOT a behavioral consequence of decision fatigue:
a. spending more money.
b. making more accurate decisions.
c. making harsh decisions.
d. avoiding decision-making altogether.
68. Related to the confirmation bias, an example of “tunnel vision” would be:
a. In advance of the board meeting regarding the company’s decision to move their offices, Ken has made up his mind to move the office to Wisconsin. He spends a lot of time finding information on the tax benefits of doing business in Wisconsin and overlooks similar tax benefits in Indiana.
b. Carl hasn’t made up his mind about moving the company to a new location. He spends most of his time researching the lowest tax rates nationwide, and looking into what states are the least restrictive in terms of environmental compliance.
c. Mary feels secure in her viewpoint to move the company headquarters to Wisconsin, but also spends time researching cities such as Kansas City, Minneapolis, and Columbus, to inform herself of the quality of life and opportunities for business growth in these locations.
d. Kim feels pressured by the group to conform to the majority viewpoint of where to move the company headquarters. She limits her group input, and instead focuses on improving the company’s product prototype.
69. A demonstrable task is a task that:
a. can be demonstrated to a group.
b. demonstrates the skill of the person who completes it.
c. has an obvious, correct answer.
d. demonstrates the cohesion of a group.
70. Groups perform better than individuals on a wide range of demonstrable tasks. What is a key reason why groups outperform individuals faced with the same task?
a. Groups are much more overconfident than individuals, regardless of their actual accuracy.
b. Groups are more likely to exacerbate some of the shortcomings displayed by individuals.
c. Groups outperform individuals due to a process in which group members become more accurate during the group interaction.
d. Groups are more likely to neglect case-specific information and ignore base-rate information.
71. Groupthink occurs when team members place the goal of __________ above all other decision priorities.
a. good judgment
b. ethical decisions
72. Key symptoms of groupthink take root and blossom in groups that succumb to the pressures of reaching unanimity. Which of the following is one of those symptoms?
a. Members of the group regard themselves as invulnerable, morally correct, and exempt from organizational standards.
b. The group’s process of creating ideas and reaching decisions is balanced, and out-group member opinions are respected.
c. There is a diversity of opinions within the group.
d. Group members constantly discuss their reservations about the group’s controversial viewpoint.
73. Regarding ways to avoid groupthink, what is the goal of using the risk technique?
a. It allows groups to adopt different perspectives in order to create a mechanism that will instigate thinking more carefully about problems.
b. It creates an atmosphere in which team members can express doubts and raise criticisms without fear of rejection or team hostility.
c. It allows team members to assume the perspective of other constituencies with a stake in the decision.
d. It gives teams an opportunity to identify a second solution as an alternative to their first choice.
74. The mood contagion model argues that:
a. leaders transmit their own moods to team members, and this affects their behavior.
b. a leader who is experiencing negative affects (emotions) also displays negative behaviors.
c. leaders need to balance negative mood states with positive mood states.
d. leaders and team members are unaware of their own moods, but infer them based upon the behaviors of others.
75. In regard to leader mood, the effects of a leader’s anger on teamwork are all of the following EXCEPT:
a. boosts idealism.
b. lowers performance.
c. a decline in positive mood.
d. decreased motivation.
76. Environmental conditions, such as change, uncertainty, and risk, affect how people perceive leaders. Under conditions of uncertainty, people with high and stable self-esteem show a stronger preference for __________ leadership, but people with low and unstable self-esteem prefer __________ leadership.
a. task-oriented; relationship-oriented
b. extrinsically-motivated; intrinsically-motivated
c. democratic; autocratic
d. directive style of; participative style of
77. Traits such as being authoritative, having an impressive appearance, and exhibiting kindness are characteristics and skills desirable in __________ leaders.
c. randomly selected
d. systematically selected
78. The following are key determinants that can lead to the growth of close, trusting relationships between leaders and their teams EXCEPT:
a. a subordinates’ similarity to the leader.
b. demonstrated competence and performance.
c. team member extraversion.
d. diversity of team members.
79. According to the LMX (Leader-Member-Exchange) model, which of the following statements is true about how the theory operates?
a. Leaders give different team members differential amounts of attention and treatment, and develop different relationships with different team members.
b. Teams need to rotate leadership among different members of the team so as to involve all of the members.
c. Leaders need to use both reward and punishment to motivate team members to perform tasks in addition to providing regular feedback to team members.
d. Leaders need to offer resources, such as coaching and expertise to team members, who need to reciprocate by competent tasks and assignments.
80. What is one way to enhance the quality of Leader-Member Exchanges (LMX) between leaders and their employees?
a. A manager invests in their employees’ skills, and empowers them to grow and learn.
b. Leader keeps out of his or her employees’ way, and focuses on tracking the financial gains of the team’s performance.
c. Unethical leadership practices.